Which of the following steps is NOT part of the start-up procedure of centrifugal compressor refrigerating systems?

Which of the following steps is NOT part of the start-up procedure of centrifugal compressor refrigerating systems?

a) Check the refrigerant levels.
b) Open the stop valves in the chilled water system.
c) Open the main circuit breakers.
d) Open the makeup water valve.
e) Operate the oil pump for at least 10 minutes before starting the compressor


Answer: C

What is best way to spot changes in the performance of an absorption refrigeration unit?

What is best way to spot changes in the performance of an absorption refrigeration unit?

a) the use of a preventative maintenance program.
b) adjusting the controls.
c) performing cooling water treatment tests
d) testing the strength of octyl alcohol.
e) the use of log sheets.


Answer: E

After a chilled water low temperature automatically cut out, then the chiller may restart

After a chilled water low temperature automatically cut out, then the chiller may restart

a) If the cooling tower starts to run
b) If the condenser temperature is 5-6° C below its normal operating temperature
c) If the chilled water temperature rises 5-6° C
d) If the chiller has been pumped down in the indirect expansion evaporator type
e) If the outdoor temperature rises 5-6° C


Answer: C

Which one of the following refrigerant leak test procedures produces the deadly gas phosgene?

Which one of the following refrigerant leak test procedures produces the deadly gas phosgene?

a) litmus
b) halide torch
c) sulphur candle
d) leak detection liquid such as snoop
e) electronics


Answer: B

In absorption refrigeration, the low pressure ammonia vapour is drawn into the ___________ from the ____________.

In absorption refrigeration, the low pressure ammonia vapour is drawn into the ___________ from the ____________.

a) evaporator, condenser
b) generator, absorber
c) absorber, evaporator
d) condenser, generator
e) generator, condenser


Answer: C

With hermetically sealed motors, the stator electrical windings are protected from direct contact with the _______ by being sealed in a material that is impervious to moisture.

With hermetically sealed motors, the stator electrical windings are protected from direct contact with the _______ by being sealed in a material that is impervious to moisture.

a) bearing grease
b) fluid being pumped
c) over lubrication
d) sub cooling
e) steam contact with steam


Answer: B

The temperature relief device on a hot water tank protects the tank from dangerously high water temperatures; it should be set to open at _____ or slightly less.

The temperature relief device on a hot water tank protects the tank from dangerously high water temperatures; it should be set to open at _____ or slightly less.

a) 135°C
b) 125°C
c) 99°C
d) 65°C
e) temperature is not important


C

A liquid receiver with an internal volume exceeding 0.85 m3 liquid refrigerant that can be isolated from the rest of the system shall be protected by a pressure relief device that has a capacity to prevent the vessel pressure from rising more than ____% above the relief device setting.

A liquid receiver with an internal volume exceeding 0.85 m3 liquid refrigerant that can be isolated from the rest of the system shall be protected by a pressure relief device that has a capacity to prevent the vessel pressure from rising more than ____% above the relief device setting.

a) 0
b) 5
c) 10
d) 15
e) 20


Answer: C

If there is a crystallization upon shutdown a possible corrective action is to

If there is a crystallization upon shutdown a possible corrective action is to

a) add octyl alcohol charge
b) purge the system
c) adjust cooling tower control
d) check pump operation
e) reduce steam pressure


Answer: D

Which of the following are elements of a mechanical purging system?

Which of the following are elements of a mechanical purging system?

i) purge pickup tube
ii) purge chamber
iii) manual shutoff valve
iv) safety solenoid valve
v) oil trap
vi) vacuum pump


a) i and ii only
b) i, ii, and v only
c) iv and vi only
d) i, iii, and v only
e) all of the elements


Answer: E

When shutting down the refrigeration system for a weekend or less which of the following is a correct shutdown procedure?

When shutting down the refrigeration system for a weekend or less which of the following is a correct shutdown procedure?

a) Drain the cooling water circuit
b) Close the manual steam or hot water supply valve
c) Service the purge pump
d) Open all disconnect switches
e) Turn off the air supply to the pneumatic control system


Answer: B

During seasonal startup, when should the purge pump be started?

During seasonal startup, when should the purge pump be started?

a) Simultaneously with the absorption unit
b) One half hour before the absorption unit is started
c) At least 24 hours after the compressor is started
d) About one half hour after the absorption unit is started
e) Only when noncondensables are detected in the system


Answer: D

An increased air flow increases heat loss of the body by which of the following methods:

An increased air flow increases heat loss of the body by which of the following methods:

i) convection
ii) conduction
iii) evaporation


a) only
b) ii only
c) i and iii
d) i and iii
e) i, ii, and iii


Answer: E

Air used for ventilating purposes in an office building should be kept within certain range of relative humidity as indicated below.

Air used for ventilating purposes in an office building should be kept within certain range of relative humidity as indicated below.

a) 30 to 50
b) 30 to 70
c) 40 to 50
d) 50 to 60
e) 10 to 30


Answer: B

Shock Effect is

Shock Effect is

a) a constant dry-bulb temperature of 25 degrees C
b) a constant effective temperature of 15 degrees C
c) the discomfort felt when a person moves from a much hotter space to a much cooler space or vice versa
d) more apparent in the winter
e) a constant wet-bulb temperature of 20 degrees C


Answer: C

The comfort of human beings is affected by

The comfort of human beings is affected by

a) temperature
b) relative humidity
c) air cleanliness
d) air movement
e) all of the above


Answer: E

The body needs considerable time to adjust when moving from one space to another when temperature and humidity conditions vary widely. This may be described as

The body needs considerable time to adjust when moving from one space to another when temperature and humidity conditions vary widely. This may be described as

a) shock effect
b) comfort zone
c) comfort condition
d) effective temperature
e) air/motion effect


Answer: A

The comfort of human beings is affected by the atmospheric conditions surrounding them. Which of the following is not an atmospheric condition which affects comfort?

The comfort of human beings is affected by the atmospheric conditions surrounding them. Which of the following is not an atmospheric condition which affects comfort?

a) Temperature
b) Relative humidity
c) Saturation temperature
d) Air movement
e) Air cleanliness


Answer: C

Evaporative cooling is

Evaporative cooling is

a) heating and humidification of the air
b) heating and dehumidification of the air
c) cooling and humidification of the air
d) cooling and dehumidification of the air
e) cooling of the air only


Answer: C

If 5.0 cubic metres per second of air enters a heating coil at 20 degrees C dry-bulb and 15 degrees C wet bulb, and leaves the heating coil at 30 degrees C dry bulb, what is the heating capacity of the coil?

If 5.0 cubic metres per second of air enters a heating coil at 20 degrees C dry-bulb and 15 degrees C wet bulb, and leaves the heating coil at 30 degrees C dry bulb, what is the heating capacity of the coil?

a) 52 kW
b) 59.4 kW
c) 42 kW
d) 65.2 kW
e) 51.7 kW


Answer: B

If 5.0 cubic metres per second of air enters a heating coil at 20 degrees C dry-bulb and 15 degrees C wet bulb, and leaves the heating coil at 30 degrees C dry bulb, what is the change in enthalpy?

If 5.0 cubic metres per second of air enters a heating coil at 20 degrees C dry-bulb and 15 degrees C wet bulb, and leaves the heating coil at 30 degrees C dry bulb, what is the change in enthalpy?

a) 52 kJ/kg
b) 42 kJ/kg
c) 15 kJ/kg
d) 20 kJ/kg
e) 10 kJ/kg


Answer: E

If 5.0 cubic metres per second of air enters a heating coil at 20 degrees C dry-bulb and 15 degrees C wet bulb, and leaves the heating coil at 30 degrees C dry bulb, what is the volume of air leaving the coil?

If 5.0 cubic metres per second of air enters a heating coil at 20 degrees C dry-bulb and 15 degrees C wet bulb, and leaves the heating coil at 30 degrees C dry bulb, what is the volume of air leaving the coil?

a) 5.94 cubic metres per second
b) 5.0 cubic metres per second
c) 5.17 cubic metres per second
d) 4.2 cubic metres per second
e) 5.72 cubic metres per second


Answer: C

If 5.0 cubic metres per second of air enters a heating coil at 20 degrees C dry-bulb and 15 degrees C wet bulb, and leaves the heating coil at 30 degrees C dry bulb, what is the volume of air leaving the coil?

If 5.0 cubic metres per second of air enters a heating coil at 20 degrees C dry-bulb and 15 degrees C wet bulb, and leaves the heating coil at 30 degrees C dry bulb, what is the volume of air leaving the coil?

a) 5.94 cubic metres per second
b) 5.0 cubic metres per second
c) 5.17 cubic metres per second
d) 4.2 cubic metres per second
e) 5.72 cubic metres per second


Answer: C

If 5.0 cubic metres/second of air enters a heating coil at 20 degrees C dry-bulb and 15 degrees C wet-bulb, and leaves the heating coil at 30 degrees C dry-bulb, what is the mass of air flowing?

If 5.0 cubic metres/second of air enters a heating coil at 20 degrees C dry-bulb and 15 degrees C wet-bulb, and leaves the heating coil at 30 degrees C dry-bulb, what is the mass of air flowing?

a) 5.94 kg/sec

b) 6.84 kg/sec

c) 5.0 kg/sec

d) 6.2 kg/sec

e) 5.4 kg/sec





Answer: A

During sensible cooling

During sensible cooling

a) relative humidity decreases
b) enthalpy increases
c) wet-bulb temperature increases
d) relative humidity increases
e) dewpoint temperature increases


Answer: D

During sensible heating, only

During sensible heating, only

a) the relative humidity remains unchanged
b) the relative humidity increases
c) the dewpoint temperature increases
d) the specific volume increases
e) the relative humidity decreases


Answer: E

During sensible heating the dry-bulb temperature and the wet-bulb temperature are raised, and

During sensible heating the dry-bulb temperature and the wet-bulb temperature are raised, and

a) the dewpoint remains unchanged
b) the specific humidity is increased
c) the specific humidity is decreased
d) the dewpoint temperature increases
e) the dewpoint temperature decreases


Answer: A

Using the psychrometric chart, find the specific volume, if the dry-bulb temperature is 25 degrees C and the wet-bulb temperature is 20 degrees C.

Using the psychrometric chart, find the specific volume, if the dry-bulb temperature is 25 degrees C and the wet-bulb temperature is 20 degrees C.

a) 0.84 cubic metres / kg
b) 0.852 kg / cubic metres
c) 0.85 cubic metres / kg
d) 0.90 cubic metres / kg
e) 0.862 cubic metres / kg


Answer: E

Using the psychrometric chart, find the enthalpy if the dry-bulb temperature is 25 degrees C and the wet-bulb temperature is 20 degrees C.

Using the psychrometric chart, find the enthalpy if the dry-bulb temperature is 25 degrees C and the wet-bulb temperature is 20 degrees C.

a) 55 kJ/kg
b) 57 kJ/kg
c) 60 kJ/kg
d) 50 kJ/kg
e) 65 kJ/kg


Answer: B

Using the psychrometric chart, find the specific humidity if the dry-bulb temperature is 25 degrees C and the wet-bulb temperature is 20 degrees C.

Using the psychrometric chart, find the specific humidity if the dry-bulb temperature is 25 degrees C and the wet-bulb temperature is 20 degrees C.

a) 0.12 kg of water vapour per kg of dry air
b) 0.012 kg of water vapour per kg of dry air
c) 0.0125 kg of water vapour per kg of dry air
d) 0.013 kg of water vapour per kg of dry air
e) 0.0115 kg of water vapour per kg of dry air


Answer: C

Using the psychrometric chart, find the dew point temperature if the dry-bulb temperature is 25 degrees C and the wet-bulb temperature is 20 degrees C.

Using the psychrometric chart, find the dew point temperature if the dry-bulb temperature is 25 degrees C and the wet-bulb temperature is 20 degrees C.

a) 17.5 degrees C
b) 14 degrees C
c) 20 degrees C
d) 16 degrees C
e) 19 degrees C


Answer: A

Using the psychrometric chart, find the relative humidity if the dry-bulb temperature is 25 degrees C and the wet-bulb temperature is 20 degrees C.

Using the psychrometric chart, find the relative humidity if the dry-bulb temperature is 25 degrees C and the wet-bulb temperature is 20 degrees C.

a) 62%
b) 70%
c) 52%
d) 72%
e) 75%


Answer: A

Using the psychrometric chart, find the relative humidity if the dry-bulb temperature is 25 degrees C and the wet-bulb temperature is 25 degrees C.

Using the psychrometric chart, find the relative humidity if the dry-bulb temperature is 25 degrees C and the wet-bulb temperature is 25 degrees C.

a) 50%
b) 90%
c) 100%
d) 95%
e) 60%


Answer: C

Using the psychrometric chart, find the specific volume if the dry-bulb temperature is 20 degrees C and the wet-bulb temperature is 15 degrees C.

Using the psychrometric chart, find the specific volume if the dry-bulb temperature is 20 degrees C and the wet-bulb temperature is 15 degrees C.

a) 0.859 cubic metres / kg
b) 0.842 cubic metres / kg
c) 0.90 cubic metres / kg
d) 0.80 cubic metres / kg
e) 0.87 cubic metres / kg


Answer: A

Using the psychrometric chart, find the enthalpy if the dry-bulb temperature is 20 degrees C and the wet-bulb temperature is 15 degrees C.

Using the psychrometric chart, find the enthalpy if the dry-bulb temperature is 20 degrees C and the wet-bulb temperature is 15 degrees C.

a) 40 kJ/kg
b) 45 kJ/kg
c) 55 kJ/kg
d) 50.5 kJ/kg
e) 42 kJ/kg


Answer: E

Using the psychrometric chart, find the specific humidity if the dry-bulb temperature is 20 degrees C and the wet-bulb temperature is 15 degrees C.

Using the psychrometric chart, find the specific humidity if the dry-bulb temperature is 20 degrees C and the wet-bulb temperature is 15 degrees C.

a) 0.009 kg of water vapour per kg of dry air
b) 0.008 kg of water vapour per kg of dry air
c) 0.010 kg of water vapour per kg of dry air
d) 0.0085 kg of water vapour per kg of dry air
e) 0.0085 kg of dry air per kg of water vapour


Answer: D

Using the psychrometric chart, find the dew point temperature if the dry-bulb temperature is 20 degrees C and the wet-bulb temperature is 15 degrees C.

Using the psychrometric chart, find the dew point temperature if the dry-bulb temperature is 20 degrees C and the wet-bulb temperature is 15 degrees C.

a) 20 degrees C
b) 14 degrees C
c) 11.5 degrees C
d) 10 degrees C
e) 16 degrees C


Answer: C

Using the psychrometric chart, find the relative humidity if the dry-bulb temperature is 20 degrees Celsius and the wet-bulb temperature is 15 degrees Celsius.

Using the psychrometric chart, find the relative humidity if the dry-bulb temperature is 20 degrees Celsius and the wet-bulb temperature is 15 degrees Celsius.

a) 50%
b) 58%
c) 52%
d) 68%
e) 62%


Answer: B

Which of the following statements about cooling and dehumidification is false?

Which of the following statements about cooling and dehumidification is false?

a) Air washers are used to dehumidify air.
b) When air leaves the washer it will be close to 100% relative humidity.
c) The spray water carries off the latent heat of condensation of the water vapour in the air.
d) Dry bulb temperatures are increased.
e) Dewpoint temperatures are lowered.


Answer: D

During sensible heating which of the following results is true?

During sensible heating which of the following results is true?

a) dry-bulb temperature lowers
b) wet-bulb temperature remains constant
c) relative humidity increases
d) enthalpy remains constant
e) none of the above


Answer: E

The intersection between the line running vertically from the point on the dry-bulb scale and the downward diagonally running line from the wet-bulb scale is defined as

The intersection between the line running vertically from the point on the dry-bulb scale and the downward diagonally running line from the wet-bulb scale is defined as

a) the Dewpoint temperature
b) the partial pressure
c) the reference point
d) the specific volume
e) the relative humidity


Answer: C

Which of the following properties cannot be found on the psychrometric chart?

Which of the following properties cannot be found on the psychrometric chart?

a) dewpoint temperature
b) partial pressure
c) specific humidity
d) enthalpy
e) relative humidity


Answer: B

Enthalpy values are found on a psychrometric chart by

Enthalpy values are found on a psychrometric chart by

a) plotting a line through the required point on the chart parallel to the lines of the two enthalpy scales, one on the left side and the other on the right side of chart
b) plotting a horizontal line from one of the enthalpy scales
c) plotting a vertical line from one of the enthalpy scales
d) simply reading values on one of the enthalpy scales
e) plotting a line from one of the enthalpy scales


Answer: A

Specific volume on a psychrometric chart

Specific volume on a psychrometric chart

a) is plotted on vertical lines and read on the horizontal scale at bottom of the chart
b) is plotted on horizontal lines and read on the vertical scale at left side of the chart
c) is plotted on horizontal lines and read on the vertical scale at right side of the chart
d) has its lines originate on the volume scale along the horizontal axis and they slope steeply upwards to the left of the chart
e) is plotted on vertical lines and read on the horizontal scale at the top of the chart


Answer: D

Specific humidity scale on a psychrometric chart is

Specific humidity scale on a psychrometric chart is

a) along the horizontal axis at the bottom of the chart
b) along the vertical axis of the chart and right side of chart
c) along the horizontal axis at the top of the chart
d) along the left saturation line
e) along the vertical axis of the chart and left side of chart


Answer: B

Specific humidity is

Specific humidity is

a) the ratio of the actual amount of water vapour present in the air to the amount of water vapour the air can contain when it is saturated
b) the same as specific volume of humid air
c) the actual moisture content of air expressed as kg of moisture per kg of dry air
d) the ratio of dry air to moisture
e) the moisture content of air of 100% relative humidity


Answer: C

Relative humidity is plotted on a psychrometric chart

Relative humidity is plotted on a psychrometric chart

a) on lines curved upwards from the lower left to the right side of the chart
b) along the horizontal axis on the bottom of the chart
c) on vertical lines and read along the horizontal scale at bottom of the chart
d) on horizontal lines and read along the left side scale
e) along the saturation line and plotted along horizontal lines


Answer: A

The dewpoint temperature scale is read on a psychrometric chart

The dewpoint temperature scale is read on a psychrometric chart

a) along the top horizontal scale
b) along the saturation line, same scale as wet-bulb temperature, but is plotted along horizontal lines
c) along the horizontal axis on the bottom of the chart
d) along the right vertical axis
e) along the left vertical axis


Answer: D

The wet-bulb temperature scale is read on a psychometric chart

The wet-bulb temperature scale is read on a psychometric chart

a) along the right vertical axis
b) along the left vertical axis
c) along the saturation line and slope downward to the right
d) along the horizontal axis on the bottom of the chart
e) along the top horizontal axis


Answer: C

The dry-bulb temperature scale is read on a psychometric chart

The dry-bulb temperature scale is read on a psychometric chart

a) along the left vertical axis
b) along the right vertical axis
c) along the saturation line and slope downward to the right
d) along the top horizontal axis
e) along the horizontal axis on the bottom of the chart


Answer: E

In the SI (metric) system the enthalpy of air is measured in

In the SI (metric) system the enthalpy of air is measured in

a) degrees C
b) %
c) BTU's/kg of dry air
d) kJ/kg of dry air
e) kW/kg of dry air


Answer: D

Enthalpy of air depends on

Enthalpy of air depends on

a) the pressure, temperature, and relative humidity of the air
b) the relative humidity of the air only
c) the pressure and temperature of the air only
d) the air velocity
e) the temperature of the air only


Answer: A

Standard air is

Standard air is

a) the volume of 1 kg of air at 15 degrees Celsius and 100 kpa
b) the mass of 1 cubic metre of air at atmospheric conditions
c) the volume of 1 kg of air at ambient temperature and atmospheric pressure
d) the volume occupied by 1 kg of dry air at 21 degrees Celsius and atmospheric pressure at sea level or 101.325 kpa
e) the mass of 1 cubic metre of dry air at 20 degrees Celsius and atmospheric pressure


Answer: D

The specific volume of air is

The specific volume of air is

a) the volume of 1 kg of air at atmospheric pressure expressed in cubic centimetres
b) the volume of 1 gram of air at atmospheric pressure expressed in cubic metres
c) the volume of 1 kg of air at atmospheric pressure expressed in cubic metres
d) the volume of 1 kg of air at any pressure
e) the volume of 1 gram of air occupied at any temperature and pressure


Answer: C

Which of the following instruments use a battery operated fan to draw air over the thermometer bulbs?

Which of the following instruments use a battery operated fan to draw air over the thermometer bulbs?

a) hydrometer
b) aspirating psychrometer
c) sling psychrometer
d) dry psychrometer
e) potentiometer


Answer: B

Psychrometers are

Psychrometers are

a) instruments used to determine the purity of air
b) meters used to measure air speed
c) meters used to measure the density of air
d) instruments used to measure atmospheric pressure
e) instruments used to determine the relative humidity of air


Answer: E

What is wet-bulb depression?

What is wet-bulb depression?

a) lowering of the thermometer bulb into water
b) sum of the wet-bulb temperature and the dry-bulb temperature
c) decrease in relative humidity
d) difference between the dry-bulb temperature and the wet-bulb temperature
e) decrease in the absolute humidity


Answer: D

Wet-bulb temperature is

Wet-bulb temperature is

a) the temperature indicated by a thermometer having its bulb covered by a water-wetted wick or cloth and the wet bulb is exposed to a rapidly moving stream of air
b) the same as the dry-bulb temperature if the relative humidity is less than 100%
c) the dewpoint temperature
d) always less than the dry bulb temperature
e) not required to find the relative humidity


Answer: A

Dry-bulb temperature is

Dry-bulb temperature is

a) the absolute temperature corresponding to the atmospheric pressure
b) the dewpoint temperature
c) not required to find the relative humidity
d) the temperature of the air measured with an ordinary thermometer
e) the same as the wet-bulb temperature if the relative humidity is less than 100%


Answer: D

Dew Point can be best defined as

Dew Point can be best defined as

a) the absolute temperature at which air, upon heating, will evaporate moisture
b) the absolute temperature at which air, upon cooling, will vaporize moisture
c) the temperature that air will begin to evaporate moisture
d) the atmospheric pressure at which air will condense moisture
e) the temperature at which air, upon cooling, becomes saturated and will begin to condense out water vapour below this temperature


Answer: E

Relative humidity is

Relative humidity is

a) the actual mass of moisture present in a specific amount of air
b) the ratio of the mass of moisture contained in a specific amount of air to the maximum amount of moisture this specific amount of air can contain
c) the maximum mass of moisture that a specific amount of air can contain
d) the ratio of the mass of air contained in a specific amount of moisture to the maximum amount of air this specific amount of moisture can contain
e) a specific amount of air saturated with moisture


Answer: B

Absolute or specific humidity is

Absolute or specific humidity is

a) the actual mass of moisture present in a specific amount of air
b) the maximum mass of moisture that a specific amount of air can hold
c) the ratio of the mass of moisture contained in a specific amount of air to the maximum amount of moisture this specific amount of air can contain
d) the mass of moistrue present in a specific amount of air at that absolute temperature
e) a specific amount of air saturated with moisture


Answer: A

Which law describes the existence of moisture in the air in vapour or evaporated state?

Which law describes the existence of moisture in the air in vapour or evaporated state?

a) Newton's laws of gravity
b) 1st law of Thermodynamics
c) Dalton's Law of Partial Pressures
d) 2nd law of Thermodynamics
e) Boyle's Ideal Gas Law


Answer: C

The difference between the wet and dry bulb readings is called the

The difference between the wet and dry bulb readings is called the

a) wet bulb depression
b) relative humidity
c) dewpoint
d) correction factor
e) dry bulb depression


Answer: A

A device for measuring relative humidity is called

A device for measuring relative humidity is called

a) a dew point tester
b) an R.H. gauge
c) an aspirating gauge
d) a psychrometer
e) a chronometer


Answer: D

The term "relative humidity" applies to

The term "relative humidity" applies to

a) the percentage of moisture in the air as compared to the amount of moisture the air can hold at a specific temperature
b) the weight of the moisture in the air
c) the dryness fraction of the air
d) the amount of moisture in the air
e) the amount of humidity in the air


Answer: A

Air conditioning involves

Air conditioning involves

a) only the cooling of the air in a conditioned space
b) the control of the air temperature, the control of humidity, air circulation, and the removal of contaminants
c) only the control of air temperature
d) only the control of humidity and temperature
e) only air purification


Answer: B

The composition of pure dry air is generally taken to be

The composition of pure dry air is generally taken to be

a) 23.2% oxygen and 76.8% nitrogen by volume
b) 21% oxygen and 79% nitrogen by weight
c) 23.2% oxygen and 76.8% nitrogen by weight
d) 24% oxygen and 76% nitrogen by volume
e) 21% oxygen and 79% carbon dioxide by volume


Answer: C

Psychrometry is

Psychrometry is

a) the study of the behaviour of people
b) the study of the behaviour of air
c) the study of the behaviour of water vapour
d) the study of the behaviour of mixtures of air and water vapour
e) the study of the behaviour of ideal gases


Answer: D

The heat content of air is called the

The heat content of air is called the

a) temperature of the air
b) humidity of the air
c) enthalpy of the air
d) psychrometry of the air
e) entropy of the air


Answer: C

The volume of standard air is

The volume of standard air is

a) 0.533 kg/cubic metres of dry air
b) 0.633 kg/cubic metres of dry air
c) 0.733 kg/cubic metres of dry air
d) 0.833 kg/cubic metres of dry air
e) 0.933 kg/cubic metres of dry air


Answer: D

The dewpoint is the

The dewpoint is the

a) temperature at which dew forms on the grass
b) temperature at which water vapour will start to be absorbed into the air
c) temperature at which water will start to evaporate
d) pressure below which water vapour will start to condense out of the air
e) temperature below which water vapour will start to condense out of the air


Answer: E

Relative humidity is

Relative humidity is

a) the ratio of water vapour in the air compared to the total amount water vapour the air could contain at a given temperature
b) equal to the dry bulb temperature divided by the wet bulb temperature
c) equal to the wet bulb temperature divided by the dry bulb temperature
d) the ratio of the mass of water vapour divided by the mass of dry air
e) the ratio of the mass of water vapour divided by the mass of wet air


Answer: A

Dalton's Law of partial pressure states that

Dalton's Law of partial pressure states that

a) for every pressure there is an equal and opposite pressure
b) in a mixture of two or more gases each will exert a partial pressure which is equal to the pressure that it would exert if it filled that space alone
c) the pressure exerted by two or more gases on the walls of the containing vessel is equal to a constant
d) the sum of the mass of air and water vapour in a vessel is equal to the total pressure
e) water vapour must be included when calculating air pressures


Answer: B

Air is approximately what composition by volume?

Air is approximately what composition by volume?

a) 79% N² and 21% CO²
b) 79% O² and 21% N²
c) 79% N² and 21% O²
d) 79% CO² and 21% O²
e) 79% H² and 21% H²O vapour


Answer: C

A process used in refineries to separate components by using the property of different boiling temperatures is:

A process used in refineries to separate components by using the property of different boiling temperatures is:

a. Platforming
b. Stabilization
c. Absorption
d. Catalytic cracking
e. Fractional distillation


Answer: e

The two types of wood pulping processes are the mechanical and the

The two types of wood pulping processes are the mechanical and the

a) thermal
b) industrial
c) hydraulic
d) triple train
e) chemical


Answer: e

Wood pulp production by chemical means requires the removal of the _____ in order to obtain the cellulose fiber.

Wood pulp production by chemical means requires the removal of the _____ in order to obtain the cellulose fiber.

a. Pentosan
b. Lignin
c. Tannin
d. Hemi-cellulose
e. Sodium sulphite



Answer: b

The contaminants in natural gas may include:

The contaminants in natural gas may include:

a. Hydrogen sulphide
b. Pentane
c. Hexane
d. Methane
e. Oxygen


Answer: a

The hydrocarbons in natural gas may include:

The hydrocarbons in natural gas may include:

a. Carbon dioxide
b. Ethane
c. Nitrogen
d. Hydrogen sulphide
e. Carbonic acid


Answer: b

When petroleum oils break down or crack due to high temperature, the products formed are insoluble and:

When petroleum oils break down or crack due to high temperature, the products formed are insoluble and: 

a. More viscous
b. Less viscous
c. Highly flammable
d. Corrosive
e. Possess good heat transfer characteristics


Answer: a

Prior to a worker entering the steam drum of an off-line boiler that is connected to a common, pressurized steam header, the

Prior to a worker entering the steam drum of an off-line boiler that is connected to a common, pressurized steam header, the

a. Worker must be equipped with the correct tools and a list of required repairs
b. Worker must be provided with a safety kit for confined space entry
c. Worker must be provided with a safety line, first aid kit, and hard hat
d. Main steam, blowdown and feedwater valves must be closed, locked and tagged
e. Drum must be vented, the safety valve must be gagged, and all ash and soot removed from the fire box


Answer: d

When shutting down a boiler for internal cleaning, you should:

When shutting down a boiler for internal cleaning, you should:

a. Shut down the boiler, then fill it completely with chemically treated water
b. Shut off the fire, drain, open up and flush
c. Allow the boiler to cool; then drain, open up and flush it
d. Shut off the fire and flush with cold water to cool it down
e. Let it stand for a couple of days then drain


Answer: c

A steam heating boiler that is to be shut down for six months during the summer, should be:

A steam heating boiler that is to be shut down for six months during the summer, should be:

a. Drained, thoroughly dried out, have desiccant placed inside and be left open
b. Drained, thoroughly dried out, have desiccant placed inside and be closed up
c. Left with the water at normal working level but opened up to atmosphere
d. Left with the water at normal working level and pressurized with air to 50 kPa
e. Filled completely with water and the vent left open to atmosphere


Answer: b

It is recommended that a new boiler be shut down, drained, opened up, flushed out and inspected after the first _____ months of operation.

It is recommended that a new boiler be shut down, drained, opened up, flushed out and inspected after the first _____ months of operation.

a. Two
b. Three
c. Six
d. Nine
e. Twelve


Answer: b

An eye made by using a Crosby clip will have a strength factor of

An eye made by using a Crosby clip will have a strength factor of

a) 80%
b) 50%
c) 95%
d) 75%
e) 90%


Answer: a

Stove bolt nuts are usually:

Stove bolt nuts are usually:

a. Hexagonal
b. Square
c. Fine thread
d. Self locking
e. Left hand thread


Answer: b

Taper, plug and bottoming are types of:

Taper, plug and bottoming are types of:

a. Wrenches
b. Dies
c. Files
d. Punches
e. Taps


Answer: e

Who is responsible for providing safe working conditions in the plant?

Who is responsible for providing safe working conditions in the plant?

a. Management
b. The Boilers Branch
c. Worker's Compensation Occupational Health and Safety
d. The ASME Code
e. The Union


Answer: a

Heat lost from a building is:

Heat lost from a building is:

a. Dependent on the shape of the openings in a building
b. Independent of indoor air temperature
c. Greater on windier days
d. Independent of outside temperature
e. Dependant on barometric pressure


Answer: c

Thermal resistance (R) may be defined as the:

Thermal resistance (R) may be defined as the:

a. Quantity of heat flow per unit time (in Watts)
b. Ability of a material of uniform thickness to transmit heat (W/m°C)
c. Heat transfer through a one-metre cross-sectional area of a particular material with defined surfaces (W/m2°C)
d. Heat flow per unit time through one square metre of a material, when exposed to a differential temperature of 1 degree Celsius (W/m2°C)
e. Reciprocal of thermal conductance (m2°C/W)


Answer: e

The quickest method of calculating air infiltration into a building is the

The quickest method of calculating air infiltration into a building is the

a. air change method
b. crack method
c. solar method
d. conduction method
e. building pressurization method


Answer: a

HVAC control systems maintain minimum _______ air during periods of extreme high and low ambient temperature.

HVAC control systems maintain minimum _______ air during periods of extreme high and low ambient temperature.

a. Return
b. Supply
c. Ventilation
d. Exhaust
e. Recycled


Answer: c

In an HVAC system, to provide a two-position damper with manual proportional control, a/an _________ is required.

In an HVAC system, to provide a two-position damper with manual proportional control, a/an _________ is required.

a. Gradual switch
b. Offset returned air duct
c. Air mixer
d. Variable air volume box
e. Variable frequency motor drive


Answer: a

A refrigeration system used in HVAC service, that can provide both heating and cooling, is a

A refrigeration system used in HVAC service, that can provide both heating and cooling, is a

a. Run around system
b. Heat valve
c. Heat pump
d. Regenerative system
e. Thermal wheel


Answer: c

The performance of a heat pump system (or C.O.P.) is the ratio of:

The performance of a heat pump system (or C.O.P.) is the ratio of:

a. Heat output divided by heat input
b. Heat input divided by energy output
c. Energy input divided by energy output
d. Energy input divided by heat output
e. Heat output divided by energy input


Answer: e

The heat recovery system which has a capillary wick structure consisting of fine circumferential striations machined on its internal surface is called a:

The heat recovery system which has a capillary wick structure consisting of fine circumferential striations machined on its internal surface is called a:

a. Heat valve
b. Run around system
c. Heat pump
d. Thermal wheel
e. Heat pipe


Answer: e

Which of the following is NOT an advantage of a run-around heat recovery system?

Which of the following is NOT an advantage of a run-around heat recovery system?

a. The system can be retrofitted to existing HVAC systems with relative ease
b. Maintenance is relatively simple
c. 100% heat recovery is possible during the coldest times of the year
d. No cross-contamination of airflows occurs
e. The exhaust and ventilation ductwork can be located at a distance from one another


Answer: c

What is the name of the heat recovery system that consists of two finned tube heat exchangers?

What is the name of the heat recovery system that consists of two finned tube heat exchangers?

a. A run around system
b. A heat valve
c. A heat pump
d. A heat tube
e. A thermal wheel


Answer: a

If operating personnel from an old building are going to be transferred to the new building the system installed in the new building will be the same as in the older building because all the personnel are familiar with that system. This type of system selection is based mainly on which of the following factors?

If operating personnel from an old building are going to be transferred to the new building the system installed in the new building will be the same as in the older building because all the personnel are familiar with that system. This type of system selection is based mainly on which of the following factors?

a) Building owner's considerations
b) Geographical location
c) Building layout
d) Operating costs
e) Maintenance requirements


Answer: a

The funds available for the air conditioning portion of the building refers to which factor of system selection?

The funds available for the air conditioning portion of the building refers to which factor of system selection?

a) Building function
b) Capital cost
c) Building layout
d) Operating costs
e) Maintenance requirements


Answer: b

Which of the following air handling systems is not appropriate for a single zone application?

Which of the following air handling systems is not appropriate for a single zone application?

a. A packaged air conditioner
b. A dual duct system
c. A unit ventilator
d. A rooftop unit
e. A single zone constant air volume system


Answer: b

To offset internal and external heat gains, a building requires

To offset internal and external heat gains, a building requires

a. A humidifier
b. A heat source
c. Ventilation
d. A cooling source
e. A dehumidifier


Answer: d

Glycol coils using ethylene glycol:

Glycol coils using ethylene glycol:

a. Do not require air vents.
b. Are not recommended for use in heating and air conditioning systems in the food industry
c. Use direct fired boilers as their heat source
d. Do not use steam-glycol converters as their heat source
e. Give reasonable heat transfer efficiency at low glycol velocity


Answer: b

Ducts of large dimensions must be diagonally creased to

Ducts of large dimensions must be diagonally creased to

a) provide stiffness
b) allow gradual duct size change
c) decrease duct weight
d) increase air velocity
e) decrease air friction in the duct work


Answer: a

Seepage in return air ducts returned within the conditioned space

Seepage in return air ducts returned within the conditioned space

a. adds to the amount of air needed to supply the cooled space
b. ruins the duct insulation
c. increases the load on the air system in terms of volumes of air
d. increases the load on the air system in terms of pressure
e. creates a loss of cooling effect


Answer: c

Forward curved fans

Forward curved fans

a) require larger size shafts than backward inclined fans
b) are desirable when air handling units have two or more fans mounted on a common shaft
c) operate at higher speeds than backward inclined fans
d) are quieter than backward inclined fans
e) are more desirable for large fans


Answer: b

Backward inclined centrifugal fans:

Backward inclined centrifugal fans:

a. Require more horsepower than the forward curved fans to deliver a specified volume of air
b. Are quieter than forward curved fans
c. Are less efficient than forward curved fans
d. Operate at lower speeds than forward curved fans
e. Are noisier than forward curved fans


Answer: b

To minimize fan vibration problems and premature fan belt wear, it is proper to use

To minimize fan vibration problems and premature fan belt wear, it is proper to use

a. Direct drive fans
b. Balanced Sheaves
c. V-Belt drives
d. Fluid drives
e. Outlet damper controls


Answer: b

The two general groups of fans are:

The two general groups of fans are:

a. Positive displacement and dynamic
b. High pressure and low pressure
c. High volume and low volume
d. Positive displacement and axial flow
e. Centrifugal and axial flow


Answer: e

Using the psychrometric chart, find the dew point temperature at a dry bulb temperature of 20°C and a wet bulb temperature of 15°C.

Using the psychrometric chart, find the dew point temperature at a dry bulb temperature of 20°C and a wet bulb temperature of 15°C.

a. 20°C
b. 14°C
c. 11.5°C
d. 10°C
e. 16°C


Answer: c

A measure of comfort that involves the combined effects of the dry bulb temperature, relative humidity and air movement is defined as:

A measure of comfort that involves the combined effects of the dry bulb temperature, relative humidity and air movement is defined as:

a. Comfort zone
b. Effective temperature
c. Comfort condition
d. Shock effect
e. Psychrometric climate


Answer: b

In a absorption refrigeration system, which one is NOT a possible cause for decreased capacity in the system?

In a absorption refrigeration system, which one is NOT a possible cause for decreased capacity in the system?

a. Noncondensables in machine
b. Purging ineffective
c. Dilution cycle is to short
d. Lithium brodmide requires octyl alcohol
e. Cooling water too warm


Answer: c

Octal alcohol is added to the lithium bromide solution to:

Octal alcohol is added to the lithium bromide solution to:

a. Act as a drying agent
b. Act as a wetting agent
c. Prevent crystallization
d. Help the lithium bromide solution absorb non-condensables
e. Act as a dispersing agent


Answer: b

The type of operation that stops a refrigeration compressor when the temperature setpoint of the cooled substance is reached, then re-starts the compressor when the temperature set-point is exceeded, is called:

The type of operation that stops a refrigeration compressor when the temperature setpoint of the cooled substance is reached, then re-starts the compressor when the temperature set-point is exceeded, is called:

a. Intermittent operation
b. Continuous operation with reduced output
c. Cylinder bypass
d. Unloading
e. Variable guide vane operation


Answer: a

The CSA B52 code requires that pressure limiting devices shall be provided on all systems operating above atmospheric pressure, except on a factory sealed system containing less than _____ of group A1 refrigerant:

The CSA B52 code requires that pressure limiting devices shall be provided on all systems operating above atmospheric pressure, except on a factory sealed system containing less than _____ of group A1 refrigerant:

a. 9 kg
b. 7 kg
c. 10 kg
d. 5 kg
e. 3 kg


Answer: c

Which of the following are direct expansion evaporators and flooded evaporators?

Which of the following are direct expansion evaporators and flooded evaporators?

1. bare tube
2. the plate surface
3. the shell and tube
4. the finned tube

a. 1,3
b. 2,3
c. 1,2,4
d. 1,2,3,4

Answer: a

Rotary compressor types are?

Rotary compressor types are?

i. Open type
ii. Hermetic type
iii. Stationary single-blade design
iv. Rotating sliding vane design
v. Helical rotor design



a. iii, iv,v
b. i, ii, iii
c. ii, iv, v
d. i, iii, iv
e. ii, iii, iv


Answer: a

Which of the following statements about a system that circulates warm brine or water back to a chiller tank is true?

Which of the following statements about a system that circulates warm brine or water back to a chiller tank is true?

a) The system is a direct refrigeration system.
b) The evaporator in the system is located in direct contact with the material being refrigerated.
c) The brine or water is the refrigerant.
d) The evaporator cools the brine or water.
e) All of the above.


Answer: d

Which of the following are principal parts in a closed cycle compression refrigeration system?

Which of the following are principal parts in a closed cycle compression refrigeration system?

i) Absorber
ii) Evaporator
iii) Compressor
iv) Condenser

a) both i and ii
b) iii only
c) i, ii, iv
d) ii, iii, iv
e) i, ii, iii


Answer: d

The type of brine used for skating and hockey rink refrigeration systems is usually:

The type of brine used for skating and hockey rink refrigeration systems is usually:

a. Calcium sulphate
b. Calcium chloride
c. Magnesium chloride
d. Calcium nitrate
e. Sodium chloride


Answer: b

The amount of liquid that may flash into vapour can be as high as?

The amount of liquid that may flash into vapour can be as high as?

a. 30%
b. 40%
c. 50%
d. 60%
e. 70%


Answer: a

What is the name of the refrigerant that has the following characteristics? It is non-flammable, odourless, non-toxic, it does not have a corrosive effect on metal if water is present and at atmospheric pressure it has a boiling point of approximately -40.6°C.

What is the name of the refrigerant that has the following characteristics? It is non-flammable, odourless, non-toxic, it does not have a corrosive effect on metal if water is present and at atmospheric pressure it has a boiling point of approximately -40.6°C.

a. Ammonia
b. R-22
c. R-744R
d. R-134a
e. R-290


Answer: b

Group "A" refrigerants are:

Group "A" refrigerants are:

a. Non-flammable
b. Low-flammable
c. Low-toxic
d. Low-toxic and flammable
e. High-toxic and flammable


Answer: c

A refrigerant in the "B" Group that is used more than others in its group in refrigeration systems is:

A refrigerant in the "B" Group that is used more than others in its group in refrigeration systems is:

a. R-290
b. Ammonia
c. R-134a
d. R-22
e. CO2


Answer: b

The rate at which a system will remove heat from the refrigerated medium is defined as

The rate at which a system will remove heat from the refrigerated medium is defined as

a) coefficient of performance
b) net refrigerating effect
c) refrigeration capacity
d) compression ratio
e) differential efficiency


Answer: b

In the case of a simple ice box which of the following heat transfers is correct?

In the case of a simple ice box which of the following heat transfers is correct?

a) Air loses latent heat, ice does not gain any heat.
b) Air loses sensible heat, ice does not gain any heat.
c) Air loses sensible heat, ice gains sensible heat.
d) Air loses sensible heat, ice gains latent heat.
e) Air loses latent heat, ice gains latent heat.


Answer: d

If the first column of a refrigeration table lists the saturation temperature of a refrigerant, which column will most likely list the saturation pressure?

If the first column of a refrigeration table lists the saturation temperature of a refrigerant, which column will most likely list the saturation pressure?

a. Column 1
b. Column 2
c. Column 3
d. Column 4
e. Column 5


Answer: b

Which of the following correctly describes the heat transfer that takes place in a simple ice-box?

Which of the following correctly describes the heat transfer that takes place in a simple ice-box?

a. There is a net loss of heat from the system, as the air cools
b. Air gives up sensible heat; ice does not gain any heat
c. Air gives up sensible heat; ice gains sensible heat
d. Air gives up sensible heat; ice gains latent heat of fusion
e. Air gives up latent heat; ice gains latent heat of condensation


Answer: d

Which of the following has a trap as an integral part of the fixture?

Which of the following has a trap as an integral part of the fixture?

a. A toilet
b. A sink
c. A roof drain
d. A laundry tub
e. A bathtub


Answer: a

In large buildings approximately what percentage of the electrical load is lighting?

In large buildings approximately what percentage of the electrical load is lighting?

a. 60%
b. 40%
c. 70%
d. 75%
e. 80%


Answer: a

Electronic controllers can be divided into two types

Electronic controllers can be divided into two types

a) on or off
b) modulating and direct acting
c) indirect and direct acting
d) on or off and modulating
e) actuators and relays


Answer: d

A pressure sensor converts pressure changes into:

A pressure sensor converts pressure changes into:

a. An electrical signal
b. A change in electrical resistance
c. Variables such as voltage, current, or resistance
d. Air pressure
e. A temperature change


Answer: c

In a basic electric control system an example of a controlled device is a:

In a basic electric control system an example of a controlled device is a:

a. fuel valve
b. thermostat
c. pressure-stat
d. humidistat
e. flow switch


Answer: a

In a self-contained control system the energy for operation is provided by:

In a self-contained control system the energy for operation is provided by:

a. Electricity
b. Air pressure
c. The reaction of the sensing device
d. A bellows
e. A bleed type nozzle


Answer: c

The most common type of damper operator is a:

The most common type of damper operator is a:

a. Relay
b. Spring
c. Bellows
d. Piston
e. Pilot positioner



Answer: d

Pneumatic controllers are divided into two basic classes,:

Pneumatic controllers are divided into two basic classes,:

a. Direct and reverse
b. Off/on and proportional
c. Positive and negative action
d. Bleed and non-bleed
e. Reset and gain


Answer: d

In a non-bleed type controller the device that senses a change in room temperature is called a:

In a non-bleed type controller the device that senses a change in room temperature is called a:

a. Sensing valve
b. Bellows
c. Valve chamber
d. Temperature switch
e. Valve diaphragm


Answer: b

The device used to maintain a constant pressure throughout a pneumatic control system is called a:

The device used to maintain a constant pressure throughout a pneumatic control system is called a:

a. Reducing valve
b. Gradual switch
c. Pneumatic valve
d. Balancing valve
e. Proportional band controller


Answer: a

A flame failure device is unresponsive to:

A flame failure device is unresponsive to:

a. Ultraviolet light
b. Infra-red light
c. Visible light
d. Fuel flow
e. Heat


Answer: d

A levelling indicator is found on

A levelling indicator is found on

a) the casing of a heating boiler
b) a low-water fuel cutoff switch
c) a boiler feedwater pump
d) a modutrol motor
e) an ON-OFF operating control switch


Answer: e

The type of combustion control frequently used on a small packaged boiler is

The type of combustion control frequently used on a small packaged boiler is

a. a semi-automatic control
b. a modulating control
c. a proportional control
d. a constant pressure control
e. an on-off control


Answer: e

The main steam boiler control device used with an on/off combustion fuel control is a _____ sensing element.

The main steam boiler control device used with an on/off combustion fuel control is a _____ sensing element.

a. Pressure
b. Level
c. Temperature
d. Flow
e. Pneumatic


Answer: a

Which of the following is the most common type of warm air outlets used in a house?

Which of the following is the most common type of warm air outlets used in a house?

a. Ceiling diffusers
b. Wall diffusers
c. Perforated panels
d. Wall registers
e. Floor registers


Answer: e

When fan belts show signs of fraying, cracking, and wear, they should be:

When fan belts show signs of fraying, cracking, and wear, they should be:

a. Repaired
b. Replaced
c. Reported
d. Re-tightened
e. Realigned


Answer: b

In a pulse combination furnace, the stated efficiency is:

In a pulse combination furnace, the stated efficiency is:

a. 94 - 98%
b. 80 - 95%
c. 70 - 75%
d. 60 - 70%
e. 50 - 60%


Answer: a

The maximum temperature of water in a gravity hot water system is:

The maximum temperature of water in a gravity hot water system is:

a. 65°C
b. 70°C
c. 77°C
d. 87°C
e. 120°C


Answer: c

In a one pipe hot water system, the fitting that directs the water to each converter is called the:

In a one pipe hot water system, the fitting that directs the water to each converter is called the:

a. Diverter
b. Balancing valve
c. Vent valve
d. Separator
e. Syphon


Answer: a

In the case of radiators and convectors, the main sources of trouble are the:

In the case of radiators and convectors, the main sources of trouble are the:

a. Air vents
b. Fins
c. Push nipples
d. Connecting rods
e. Valves and traps


Answer: e

When the return main of a gravity return steam heating system is located below the level of the water line in the boiler, it is called:

When the return main of a gravity return steam heating system is located below the level of the water line in the boiler, it is called:

a. Flooded return
b. Dry return
c. Wet return
d. Reverse return
e. Direct return


Answer: c

The level in the condensate receiver may be automatically controlled by a:

The level in the condensate receiver may be automatically controlled by a:

a. Float switch
b. Pressure reducing valve
c. Gate valve
d. Drain valve
e. Sight glass


Answer: a

If the low-water fuel cutoff and/or the high limit control are equipped with a trip-out device on a boiler, it is recommended as part of the startup preparation to

If the low-water fuel cutoff and/or the high limit control are equipped with a trip-out device on a boiler, it is recommended as part of the startup preparation to

a) dismantle the device and check for lose wires
b) push the reset button to assure that the switches are closed
c) check the low-water fuel cutoff and make sure all the mercury switches are working properly
d) check that the high limit switches are set high enough
e) dismantle the high limit switches and overhaul if necessary


Answer: b

The most important rule in safe operation of a steam heating boiler is:

The most important rule in safe operation of a steam heating boiler is:

a. Operate the burner properly
b. Keep the water level in the boiler at the proper level
c. Maintain the proper operation of automatic controls
d. Maintain the correct level in the altitude gauge
e. Ensure air is kept out of the system


Answer: b

How often would you test the low level fuel cut-off on a low pressure steam heating boiler by blowing out the float chamber?

How often would you test the low level fuel cut-off on a low pressure steam heating boiler by blowing out the float chamber?

a. Daily
b. Monthly
c. Semi-annually
d. Annually
e. Bi-weekly


Answer: a

The scale on the dial of the pressure or altitude gauge on a hot water heating boiler shall be graduated to not more than _____ times the pressure at which the safety relief valve is set.

The scale on the dial of the pressure or altitude gauge on a hot water heating boiler shall be graduated to not more than _____ times the pressure at which the safety relief valve is set.

a. 1.5
b. 2
c. 2.5
d. 3
e. 3.5


Answer: d

An atmospheric premix burner has air entering around the flame that is termed:

An atmospheric premix burner has air entering around the flame that is termed:

a. Primary air
b. Secondary air
c. Atomizing air
d. Combustion air
e. Tertiary air


Answer: b

Atmospheric burners are used for:

Atmospheric burners are used for:

a. Gas stoves, hot water heaters, heating furnaces and many heating boilers
b. Ring type burners
c. Coal firing
d. Lowering the relative humidity in the combustion air
e. Preheating the combustion air


Answer: a

The compressed air used as atomizing air in the air atomizing oil burner is also called:

The compressed air used as atomizing air in the air atomizing oil burner is also called:

a. Secondary air
b. Primary air
c. Pre-mixed air
d. Combustion air
e. Post-compressed air


Answer: b

The steam and water spaces of a cast iron sectional boiler are connected by:

The steam and water spaces of a cast iron sectional boiler are connected by:

a. Tie rods
b. Tie nipples
c. Hydraulic jacks
d. Steel studs
e. Push nipples


Answer: e

In a vertical sectional boiler, the sections are placed:

In a vertical sectional boiler, the sections are placed:

a. One above the other
b. Side by side
c. On the furnace
d. Above the draft hood
e. 180° to each other


Answer: b

When personal computers are linked together and information flows between them, it is called:

When personal computers are linked together and information flows between them, it is called:

a. Telecommunicating
b. Networking
c. Teleconferencing
d. Linking
e. Hardware sharing


Answer: b

A recorder utilizing a spiral Bourdon tube will have a pen movement:

A recorder utilizing a spiral Bourdon tube will have a pen movement:

a. On a logarithmic scale
b. Proportional to the change in tube pressure
c. That is often imperceptible
d. Range of 0 to 24 hours
e. Range of 0 to 7 days


Answer: b

A thermocouple measures:

A thermocouple measures:

a. Pressure
b. Temperature
c. Flow
d. Velocity
e. Light


Answer: b

Level, pressure, flow, temperature, composition, vibration, speed and clearance are all examples of:

Level, pressure, flow, temperature, composition, vibration, speed and clearance are all examples of:

a. Transmitters
b. Process variables
c. Sensing elements
d. Disturbances
e. Manipulated variables


Answer: b

A sensing element responds to the value of the

A sensing element responds to the value of the

a. Controller
b. Recorder
c. Control valve
d. Transducer
e. Controlled variable


Answer: e

Circuits which extend beyond the final overcurrent device are termed?

Circuits which extend beyond the final overcurrent device are termed?

a. Secondary circuits
b. Primary circuits
c. Branch circuits
d. Trunk circuits
e. Tertiary circuits


Answer: c

When magnetic flux produced by one coil induces an EMF in a second coil, it is called:

When magnetic flux produced by one coil induces an EMF in a second coil, it is called:

a. Self inductance
b. Electromagnetic induction
c. Mutual inductance
d. Capacitive reactance
e. Inductive reactance


Answer: c

The connection provided on DC motors to supply the armature with power

The connection provided on DC motors to supply the armature with power

a) are slip rings
b) are field poles
c) is a rheostat
d) is a commutator
e) is a rotating conductor


Answer: d

The output voltage of a particular DC generator rises sharply from minimum load to full load. This generator is a ___________ generator.

The output voltage of a particular DC generator rises sharply from minimum load to full load. This generator is a ___________ generator.

a. Shunt
b. Compound
c. Synchronous
d. Wound-rotor
e. Series



Answer: e

Utility companies have a surcharge to their customers based on:

Utility companies have a surcharge to their customers based on:

a. The maximum voltage used
b. The maximum amperage used
c. System capacitance
d. Transformer efficiency
e. Peak power demand


Answer: e

The major difference between an AC and a DC generator is that a AC generator has:

The major difference between an AC and a DC generator is that a AC generator has:

a. A rotor
b. A commutator
c. Slip rings
d. A field
e. A stator


Answer: c

The major difference between an AC and a DC generator is that a DC generator has:

The major difference between an AC and a DC generator is that a DC generator has:

a. A rotor
b. A commutator
c. Slip rings
d. A field
e. A stator


Answer: b

When using Fleming's Left Hand Rule, the index finger represents:

When using Fleming's Left Hand Rule, the index finger represents:

a. Magnetic flux direction, for generators
b. Conductor motion direction, for motors
c. Conductor motion direction, for generators
d. Flux direction, for motors
e. Direction of current flow, for motors.


Answer: d

Iron and steel may be magnetized by rubbing the metal with a:

Iron and steel may be magnetized by rubbing the metal with a:

a. Stainless steel
b. Steel wool
c. Brass rod
d. Magnet
e. An iron filing compound


Answer: d

Electrical power can be determined by the formula

Electrical power can be determined by the formula

a) P = IE
b) I = ER
c) E = IR
d) R = EI
e) P = IR



Answer: a

The force required to produce a current of one ampere through a resistance of one ohm, is

The force required to produce a current of one ampere through a resistance of one ohm, is

a) one watt
b) one megawatt
c) one volt
d) one kilovolt
e) one ampohm


Answer: c

If the applied voltage in a circuit is 120 volts and the current flow is 3 amperes the resistance of this circuit is

If the applied voltage in a circuit is 120 volts and the current flow is 3 amperes the resistance of this circuit is

a) 40 Watts
b) .025 Ohms
c) 360 Ohms
d) 40 Ohms
e) 25 Watts


Answer: d

Three resistors of 20, 60 and 120 ohms are connected in parallel and the circuit amperage is 60. The applied voltage would be

Three resistors of 20, 60 and 120 ohms are connected in parallel and the circuit amperage is 60. The applied voltage would be

a) 7,200
b) 12,000
c) 800
d) 3.33
e) 0.33


Answer: c

Ohms Law can be stated as

Ohms Law can be stated as

a) E = IR
b) R = I/E
c) I = R/E
d) volts equals ohms divided by amperes
e) watts times ohms equals volts


Answer: a

An electrical device which is designed to start and stop current flow is the

An electrical device which is designed to start and stop current flow is the

a) potentiometer
b) fuse
c) circuit breaker
d) switch
e) resistor


Answer: d

The flow of electrons in a uniform direction from atom to atom through a circuit, is known as

The flow of electrons in a uniform direction from atom to atom through a circuit, is known as

a) electromotive force
b) potential difference
c) a short circuit
d) current
e) voltage drop


Answer: d

A collar thrust bearing:

A collar thrust bearing:

1. can support more load than a Michell thrust bearing
2. can prevent a rotating shaft from moving in both axial directions
3. has boundary lubrication
4. is an anti-friction type bearing

a) 1, 2
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 2, 4
d) 1, 2, 3, 4
e) 3, 4


Answer: b

When grease is used in an antifriction bearing, the bearing housing should not be filled _____ full.

When grease is used in an antifriction bearing, the bearing housing should not be filled _____ full.

a. more than 1/4
b. more than 1/3
c. more than 1/2
d. more than 3/4
e. less than completely


Answer: b

A collar thrust bearing:

A collar thrust bearing:

a. Must have a shiny surface
b. Can support more load than a Michell thrust bearing
c. Is an anti-friction type bearing
d. Is used with steam turbines only
e. Has boundary lubrication


Answer: e

When inspecting a dismantled bearing, the first indication of a failing bearing is:

When inspecting a dismantled bearing, the first indication of a failing bearing is:

a. Cracked balls
b. Roughness
c. Discoloration
d. Rusting or corrosion
e. Tapered rollers


Answer: b

A thrust bearing which does not utilize the oil wedge principle of lubrication is the:

A thrust bearing which does not utilize the oil wedge principle of lubrication is the:

a. Michell type
b. Collar type
c. Flotation type
d. Kingsbury type
e. Vertical type


Answer: b

Which liquid lubricant is the most commonly used class?

Which liquid lubricant is the most commonly used class?

a. Mineral oils
b. Fixed oils
c. Synthetic oils
d. High viscosity oil
e. Low viscosity oil


Answer: a

Sodium (Soda) Base Greases are suitable for temperatures as high as ___°C.

Sodium (Soda) Base Greases are suitable for temperatures as high as ___°C.

a. 150
b. 120
c. 180
d. 100
e. 160


Answer: b

Which of the following has the greatest effect on the viscosity of lubrication oil?

Which of the following has the greatest effect on the viscosity of lubrication oil?

a. Pressure
b. Load
c. Flow
d. Temperature
e. Speed


Answer: d

The property of oil that indicates its ability to support a load is:

The property of oil that indicates its ability to support a load is:

a. Viscosity
b. Viscosity index
c. Pour point
d. Floc point
e. Consistency


Answer: a

Grease:

Grease:

a. Is a semi-liquid
b. Is an excellent high-speed, low load lubricant
c. Attracts dirt and water to bearings, leading to premature failure
d. Is likely to drip or splash from bearings and therefore is rarely used in the textile and food industries
e. Can be used under conditions where oil may leak away and leave the bearing dry


Answer: e

Intercoolers:

Intercoolers:

a. Must have a drain
b. Are more efficient when cooled with air than with water
c. Are used on double acting single stage compressors
d. Help increase the volume of the air
e. Should use an antifreeze solution


Answer: a

Rotary pumps:

Rotary pumps:

1. are high pressure pumps
2. must be primed
3. use mechanical seals
4. are positive displacement pumps



a) 1, 2
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 4
d) 1, 3, 4
e) 1, 2, 3, 4


Answer: c

When a reciprocating pump delivers fluid every second stroke of its piston, it is called a ___________ pump:

When a reciprocating pump delivers fluid every second stroke of its piston, it is called a ___________ pump:

a. Positive displacement
b. Single acting
c. Two-stage
d. Double acting
e. Duplex


Answer: b

Using a compressed air starting motor is a popular method of starting:

Using a compressed air starting motor is a popular method of starting:

a. A large stationary diesel engine
b. A small two-stroke engine
c. A gasoline engine
d. An aircraft engine
e. A propane engine


Answer: a

Large internal combustion engines are cooled with:

Large internal combustion engines are cooled with:

a. Water jackets
b. Evaporation
c. Air cooling
d. Condensers
e. Refrigeration


Answer: a

A simple gas turbine is one without reheaters or:

A simple gas turbine is one without reheaters or:

a. Starting motors
b. Shafts
c. Compressors
d. Combustors
e. Regenerators


Answer: e

With all other factors being equal, a counter-flow cooling tower _____________ as a cross-flow cooling tower.

With all other factors being equal, a counter-flow cooling tower _____________ as a cross-flow cooling tower.

a. Is not as tall
b. Has much less cooling capacity
c. Requires less floor space
d. Requires less fan power
e. Has a lower pressure drop


Answer: c

Biological fouling in recirculating cooling water towers is caused by algae, _____ and bacteria growth.

Biological fouling in recirculating cooling water towers is caused by algae, _____ and bacteria growth.

a. Flora
b. Fauna
c. Micro-organisms
d. Biological
e. Fungi


Answer: e

The great majority of steam turbine governing systems utilize the

The great majority of steam turbine governing systems utilize the

a) hydraulic system principle
b) pneumatic system principle
c) mechanical centrifugal principle
d) lever principle
e) bimetal expansion principle


Answer: c

The stationary passages of a reaction turbine are called the:

The stationary passages of a reaction turbine are called the:

a. Shaft
b. Rotor
c. Shroud ring
d. Fixed blades
e. Diaphragms


Answer: d

Impulse turbines:

Impulse turbines:

a. are only used with low pressure steam
b. require large thrust bearings
c. were invented by Parsons
d. have large pressure drops across the huckets
e. have blades with the same steam inlet and outlet angles


Answer: e