Power Engineering MCQ: October 2018

Archive for October 2018

What piece of equipment was developed to provide temperature control in individual rooms in buildings such as hotels?

a) a rooftop unit
b) a window air conditioner
c) a unit ventilator
d) a packaged air conditioner
e) a multi-zone unit

Answer: C

What type of heat exchanger is a heat pipe recovery unit?

a) cross flow, air to water
b) counter flow, water to air
c) parallel flow, air to air
d) counter flow, air to air
e) parallel flow, process to process

Answer: D

Air conditioning heat recovery methods include:

1. the runaround system
2. the solar collector system
3. the tempered intake system
4. the thermal wheel system

a) 1,2
b) 3,4
c) 1,4
d) 2,3
e) 1,2,3,4

Answer: C

In an induction type combined air conditioning system, where is the air filtered?

a) in the induction unit
b) in the make-up unit
c) in the low velocity ducting
d) in the attenuator
e) in the room diffusers

Answer: B

A type of fan, which is well suited for air handling units which require two or more fans on the same shaft and low rotation speed is the _________.

a) backward inclined airfoil blades
b) straight radial blade
c) tube axial fan
d) forward curve fan
e) vane axial fan

Answer: D

What other system is a single zone, constant air volume air conditioning system similar to?

a) multi-zone system
b) dual duct system
c) rooftop unit system
d) packaged air conditioning system
e) central air conditioning system

Answer: C

With a counterflow arrangement of air and water:

a) the water supply connection is on the same side as the entering air
b) it decreases the heat transfer efficiency
c) the water supply connection is on the same side as the leaving air
d) the water return connection is on the same side as the leaving air
e) the heat transfer efficiency is the same as with parallel arrangement of air and water

Answer: C

Building a high velocity terminal reheat central air conditioning system allows for what?

a) The use of smaller ducts
b) The use of smaller fans
c) The use of a variable air fan
d) Terminal boxes to be located directly in the conditioned space
e) The use of a rooftop unit for cooling

Answer: A

Which is not a disadvantage of a heat pipe recovery system?

a) they are more expensive than the runaround system
b) a large space is required
c) relatively low recovery range
d) difficult to retrofit
e) recovery is limited when there's a chance that frost will form on the exhaust section

Answer: C

What type of piping systems may be used in a "Fan-coil Unit with Make-up Air" type combined air conditioning system?

1. one-pipe
2. two-pipe
3. three-pipe
4. four-pipe

a) 1,2
b) 3,4
c) 1,2,3
d) 2,3,4
e) 1,3,4

Answer: D

What is often done when the required temperature rise through a steam preheat coil exceeds 18 oC?

a) hotter steam is used
b) a separately fired heating coil is added
c) air flow is restricted to 10 cubic metres per minute
d) the system is put to 100% recirculated air
e) two or more preheat coils in series are used

Answer: E

One of the following is not a property of a good heat transfer oil :

a) high specific heat
b) low pour point
c) good load bearing properties
d) high flash point
e) non corrosive

Answer: C

All power engineers should become familiar with workplace safety standards laid down and enforced by:

a) ABSA
b) SER
c) ERCB
d) ACB
e) WCB

Answer: E

A lean amine solution contains little:

a) water
b) amine
c) nitrogen
d) H2S
e) hydrocarbon

Answer: D

Smelt liquor used in the Kraft pulp process is a mixture of:

a) sodium lignite
b) soda solids
c) sodium sulfite
d) sodium hydroxide
e) molten smelt

Answer: A

The minimum mounting height for a louvre in most snowfall area is ______.

a) 1.0 m
b) 1.5 m
c) 2.0 m
d) 2.5 m
e) 3.0 m

Answer: A

What is a drop in humidity in a controlled space sensed by?

a) a pressurestat
b) a humidistat
c) thermostat
d) a water sensor
e) the humidifier

Answer: B

This type of unitary air conditioning system incorporates heating/cooling coils along with boilers and chillers.

a) window air conditioner
b) packaged air conditioner
c) unit ventilator
d) rooftop unit
e) combined air conditioner

Answer: C

Power consumption reduction of a fan motor can be best achieved by __________.

a) direct drive
b) forward curved fan
c) v-belt drive
d) volume control
e) static pressure control

Answer: D

The maximum temperature of oil which can be pumped by a hot oil pump if teflon is used as a non-metallic part of the mechanical seal is:

a) 100 degrees Celsius
b) 250 degrees Celsius
c) 350 degrees Celsius
d) 150 degrees Celsius
e) 200 degrees Celsius

Answer: E

A gas sweetening unit in an oil refinery

a) uses heat only to drive off the hydrogen sulphide from the sour gas
b) uses an amine contactor to absorb the hydrogen sulphide from the sour gas
c) uses an amine contactor to absorb the hydrogen sulphide from the crude oil
d) uses amine solution to absorb the hydrogen sulphide from the gasoline
e) uses heat only to drive off the hydrogen sulphide from the crude oil

Answer: B

The purpose of a reformer in an oil refinery is

a) to cause the molecular structure of the naphtha to change so that the octane rating is increased and also to produce the hydrogen for the hydrotreaters
b) to remove the sulphur and nitrogen compounds from the diesel and naphtha
c) to cause the naphtha to change so the octane rating is decreased
d) to remove the water from the diesel
e) to remove the water from the crude oil

Answer: A

A diesel hydrotreater in an oil refinery

a) removes the sulphur and nitrogen compounds before the naphtha goes to the platformer
b) removes the water from the crude oil
c) only removes the water from the diesel
d) removes the sulphur and nitrogen compounds from the diesel before the diesel goes to storage
e) causes the heavy hydrocarbons to be transformed into lighter hydrocarbons

Answer: D

The purpose of the naphtha hydrotreater in an oil refinery is

a) to remove the hydrogen sulphide and nitrogen from the diesel
b) to remove the sulphur and nitrogen compounds before the naphtha goes to the platformer
c) to cause the heavy hydrocarbons to be transformed into lighter hydrocarbons
d) to remove the water from the crude oil
e) to remove the diesel from the naphtha

Answer: B

The purpose of the fluid catalytic cracking unit (F.C.C.U.) in an oil refinery is

a) to receive the crude oil and recover more gas oils by further distilling under high temperature and low pressure
b) to remove the propane, butane, and light ends from the crude oil
c) to cause the heavy hydrocarbons to be transformed into lighter hydrocarbons
d) to remove the sulphur and nitrogen from the diesel
e) to remove the hydrogen sulphide and nitrogen from the naphtha

Answer: C

The purpose of the vacuum unit in an oil refinery is

a) to receive the "reduced crude" and recover more gas oils by further distilling under high temperature and low pressure
b) to only take off the propane, butane, and light ends from the crude oil
c) the same as the fluid catalytic cracking unit
d) to remove the hydrogen sulphide and nitrogen from the naphtha
e) to remove the sulphur and nitrogen from the diesel

Answer: A

The overall purposes of an oil refinery are to

a) only remove the crude oil contaminants such as water and hydrogen sulphide
b) only process the crude oil into specific end products
c) only process the crude oil into diesel and gasoline
d) remove crude oil contaminants and process the crude oil into specific end products
e) only fractionate the raw crude oil into specific end products

Answer: D

Which of the following is not a steam user in a meat processing plant?

a) edible and inedible rendering plants
b) building heating
c) sanitation on the killing floor
d) steam tracing
e) blast freezer

Answer: E

Hog fuel is a term used to describe a

a) very poor quality of fuel oil used as boiler fuel in sawmills
b) mixture of waste wood and bark used as boiler fuel in a sawmill
c) low calorific value waste fuel used as boiler fuel in oil refineries
d) low calorific value waste fuel used as boiler fuel in meat processing plants
e) waste product from hog barns used as boiler fuel in meat processing plants

Answer: B

Kiln-dried lumber refers to drying lumber

a) by air seasoning
b) by stacking it in layers so that each surface receives natural air currents
c) by automatically maintaining temperature, humidity, and ventilation by using forced ventilation and steam coils
d) slowly over a long period of time
e) in a shed-like building by natural air circulation

Answer: C

The main disadvantage of a sawmill gang saw is

a) the logs cannot be turned, nor the thickness varied
b) it produces a very small volume of smoothly sawed lumber
c) it produces a large volume of roughly sawed lumber
d) the logs can be turned, but the thickness cannot be varied
e) the thickness can be varied, but the logs cannot be turned

Answer: A

Wood pulp production by chemical means, requires the removal of __________, in order to obtain the cellulosic fibre.

a) pentosan
b) lignin
c) sugar
d) hemicellulose
e) sodium sulphite

Answer: B

The raw material used in pulp and paper mills is

a) water
b) chemicals
c) bark
d) wood chips
e) bleach

Answer: D

In the kraft process, the chipped wood is further processed in one of the following:

a) recovery boiler
b) bleacher
c) press
d) hogger
e) digester

Answer: E

The two chief methods of chemical pulping are:

1. the sulphite process
2. the phosphate process
3. the sulphate process
4. the sodium carbonate process

a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 4
d) 3, 4
e) 1, 4

Answer: B

The two types of wood pulping processes are the mechanical and the

a) thermal
b) industrial
c) hydraulic
d) triple train
e) chemical

Answer: E

The purpose of dehydration in natural gas treatment plants is

a) to remove water vapour and remaining hydrocarbon condensates from the main gas stream
b) to lower the temperature of the hot condensates
c) to remove hydrogen sulphide from the hydrocarbons
d) to remove the liquid hydrocarbons from the gas
e) to dry the carbon dioxide in the inlet separator

Answer: A

The purpose of stabilization in natural gas treatment plants is

a) to stabilize the gas from the contactor
b) to flash off the gases at low pressure from the liquid hydrocarbons
c) to stabilize the liquid and gas in the inlet separator
d) to flash off the gases at high pressure from the liquids
e) to prevent water from evaporating in the gas stream

Answer: B

The removal of hydrogen sulphide and carbon dioxide from the natural gas

a) is done by boiling the gas
b) is done in the inlet separator
c) is done in the dehydrator
d) is not necessary
e) can be done with amine

Answer: E

The purpose of the absorber in a natural gas plant is to

a) remove condensates from the gas
b) absorb all the hydrocarbons from the gas
c) scrub the gas from amine
d) remove hydrogen sulphide and carbon dioxide from the gas
e) absorb carbon dioxide from the gas stream

Answer: D

The purpose of an inlet separator in a natural gas plant is

a) the removal of undissolved gases from the hydrocarbons
b) the removal of liquids from the gas
c) the removal of hydrogen sulphide from the gas
d) the removal of solids from the liquids
e) the removal of carbon monoxide from the liquids

Answer: B

The contaminants in a natural gas may include

a) hydrogen sulphide
b) pentane
c) hexane
d) methane
e) oxygen

Answer: A

Hydrocarbons in a natural gas may include

a) carbon dioxide
b) ethane
c) nitrogen
d) hydrogen sulphide
e) carbonic acid

Answer: B

The authority charged with responsibility for drafting regulations to cover the use of natural gas is the

a) American Society of Mechanical Engineers
b) Canadian Standards Association
c) Fire Fighter's Union
d) Gas Conservation Board
e) Boilers and Pressure Vessels Act

Answer: D

Indicate which extinguishing agents are most suitable for hot oil fires.

a) water only
b) foam and dry chemical
c) carbon dioxide gas
d) a wet blanket
e) ether and ethylene

Answer: B

During shutdown, oil heater pilots and main burners are checked for

a) setting
b) temperature
c) pressure
d) cleanliness
e) flame pattern

Answer: D

Cracks in the refractory of a hot oil heater may indicate that

a) a poor quality of refractory has been used
b) there may have been hot spots at this point
c) the burners have been operating at too high a temperature
d) there is nothing to be concerned about
e) the tubes are leaking

Answer: B

It is important to drain an hot oil heater prior to attempting a radiographic inspection, because

a) oil and coke appear similar on the x-ray picture
b) oil and coke give a similar sound when the tube is hammered
c) x-rays passing through the oil might cause an explosion
d) drained tubes are cleaner for the radiologist to work with
e) it is safer

Answer: A

The presence of coke deposits in a heater tube can be confirmed by

a) attempting to roll a ball through the suspected bad tube
b) rattling the tube mechanically and blowing out the deposit with air
c) the use of ultrasound equipment
d) radiographic inspection
e) conducting a hydrostatic test

Answer: D

Coke deposits on the inner walls of a heater tube produce __________ when the tube is tapped lightly with a hammer?

a) a clear ringing tone
b) a dull sound
c) chimes
d) a vibrating sound
e) a whistling sound

Answer: B

A high flash point in oil reduces the risk of

a) pump cavitation
b) condensation
c) vapour bubble formation
d) heat transfer
e) fire

Answer: E

In order not to be harmful to the metals used in hot oil systems the thermal fluid must

a) be kept at a low temperature
b) have a neutral pH value
c) be noncorrosive
d) be diluted with glycol
e) be mixed with kerosene

Answer: C

____________ are required to prevent oil from spreading beyond the confines of a heater in the event of a ruptured tube.

a) Moats
b) Dikes
c) Tunnels
d) Rails
e) By-pass pipes

Answer: B

Vapour bubbles in a pump can cause the pump to

a) deteriorate
b) rotate
c) stall
d) decoy
e) cavitate

Answer: E

In order to keep some hot oil flowing backwards through a standby pump and around the discharge check valve, it is important that the ____________ valve be left open.

a) bypass
b) suction
c) automatic
d) pneumatic
e) relief

Answer: B

Most heater fuel controls are ____________ to prevent pilot burner fuel supply if hot oil flow is below a preset limit.

a) locked
b) interlocked
c) unlocked
d) jammed
e) by-passed

Answer: B

Hot oil high temperature (TSDH1) shutdown switches are installed on

a) the fuel gas line
b) the inlet line of the oil heater
c) the suction line of the pump
d) the surge tank suction line
e) the outlet line of the heater

Answer: C

Low oil flow shutdowns (FSDL) are usually installed

a) on the inlet line of the oil heater
b) on the outlet line of the oil heater
c) on the pump suction line
d) on the surge tank line
e) on the pump discharge line

Answer: B

A low hot oil flow shutdown (FSDL) ____________ installed in the outlet line of an oil heater.

a) is almost always
b) is always
c) is sometimes
d) is never
e) cannot be

Answer: B

The automatic shutdown devices on a hot oil system are called

a) interlocks
b) locksmiths
c) fail safe locks
d) lock-ups
e) circuit breakers

Answer: A

The safety valve discharge on a hot oil system returns to

a) the pump suction
b) the surge tank
c) a unit user
d) the process system
e) the pump casing

Answer: B

How far from a furnace heater dike is the drain pit located?

a) about 75 meters
b) about 100 meters
c) about 25 meters
d) about 40 meters
e) about 50 meters

Answer: E

Compatibility of oils is determined by

a) analysis
b) reading the labels
c) electrolysis
d) diagnosis
e) smelling a sample

Answer: A

With regard to oil leaving each heater pass, of particular importance is the

a) pressure
b) volume
c) velocity
d) temperature
e) flash point

Answer: D

What piece of equipment in a hot oil system requires the most operator attention?

a) the hot oil user
b) the flame detector
c) the heater
d) the burner control panel
e) the safety valve

Answer: C

While refractory is drying in a heater, circulated oil in the tubes is

a) allowed to rise in temperature at not more than 55 degrees Celsius per hour
b) allowed to drop in temperature at not more than 55 degrees Celsius per hour
c) maintained in temperature
d) drained from the system
e) superheated

Answer: A

Temperature rise in a hot oil system during the period that the refractory is drying out is allowed at a rate of

a) not more than 55 degrees Celsius per hour
b) not more than 65 degrees Celsius per hour
c) not more than 45 degrees Celsius per hour
d) not more than 75 degrees Celsius per hour
e) not more than 100 degrees Celsius per hour

Answer: A

A hot oil pump suction strainer should be inspected and cleaned after how long, following initial circulation of oil through the system?

a) 5 - 6 hours
b) 1 - 2 hours
c) 6 - 8 hours
d) 3 - 4 hours
e) 4 - 5 hours

Answer: D

How long should the circulating pump be run to ensure the system is full when filling a hot oil system?

a) 1 or 2 hours
b) 3 or 4 hours
c) 9 or 10 hours
d) 12 to 18 hours
e) 24 hours

Answer: B

When filling a hot oil system with oil and replacing nitrogen gas used to purge air from the system, _________ should be followed.

a) a line
b) a path
c) a pattern
d) an example
e) a code

Answer: C

The vapour space of the surge tank is

a) a separate compartment in the tank where gas is separated from the oil
b) the section where the oil can bubble
c) a place where gas is added to the oil
d) the space in the tank above the level of the oil
e) the space in the tank below the level of the oil

Answer: D

Small diameter pipe used in building hot oil systems is

a) 25.4 mm or smaller
b) 34.5 mm or smaller
c) 45.2 mm or smaller
d) 52.4 mm or smaller
e) 80 mm or smaller

Answer: A

Petroleum oils are widely used as heat transfer media for systems operating up to

a) 290 degrees Celsius
b) 190 degrees Celsius
c) 390 degrees Celsius
d) 250 degrees Celsius
e) 160 degrees Celsius

Answer: A

To avoid start-up difficulties in cold weather a thermal fluid must have

a) a low pour point
b) antifreeze added to it
c) methanol injected into it periodically
d) a dehydration system installed in the surge tank
e) a low fire point

Answer: A

An oil used as thermal transfer fluid must not only be readily available, it must also be at

a) low cost
b) all costs
c) cost
d) reasonable cost
e) low viscosity

Answer: D

A hot oil pump suction is located

a) above the surge tank
b) level with the surge tank
c) inside the surge tank
d) below the surge tank level
e) at the side of the tank

Answer: D

The flow through an oil heater is controlled

a) automatically
b) manually
c) proportionally
d) generally
e) by pressure changes

Answer: A

The maximum temperature of oil which can be pumped by a hot oil pump if teflon is used as a non-metallic part of the mechanical seal is

a) 100 degrees Celsius
b) 250 degrees Celsius
c) 350 degrees Celsius
d) 150 degrees Celsius
e) 200 degrees Celsius

Answer: E

A non-metallic part of a mechanical seal might be made from

a) asbestos
b) teflon
c) fibreglass
d) rubber
e) carbon

Answer: B

Hot oil convection heaters have an approximate efficiency of

a) 80 - 90 percent
b) 55 - 65 percent
c) 85 - 95 percent
d) 70 - 80 percent
e) 75 - 85 percent

Answer: E

The approximate efficiency of a hot oil radiant heater is

a) 25 - 35%
b) 50 - 60%
c) 30 - 40%
d) 40 - 50%
e) 45 - 65%

Answer: D

The most common oil heater is the combination of the radiant and ________________ type.

a) convection
b) conduction
c) superheat
d) reheater
e) portable

Answer: A

The most important piece of equipment of a hot oil system is

a) the heater
b) the pump
c) the surge tank
d) the UV
e) the burner

Answer: A

The inner walls and floor of a furnace in a fired heater, are usually lined with

a) fibreglass bales
b) asbestos blocks
c) ceramic tile
d) refractory brick
e) pyrex glass

Answer: D

The gas burners of a horizontal rectangular direct-fired oil heaters, are located

a) on the floor of the furnace
b) in the ceiling of the furnace
c) in the front of the furnace
d) in the corners of the furnace
e) external to the furnace

Answer: A

The convection tubes of a typical up-draft model fired heater are located in the

a) firebox
b) stack
c) radiant zone
d) breeching
e) refractory lining

Answer: D

The most typical fired heater model is the

a) down-draft
b) dual-draft
c) up-draft
d) balanced-draft
e) induced-draft

Answer: C

The most commonly applied oil heater, is the combination convection and __________ type heater because of its efficiency.

a) superheater
b) conduction
c) radiant
d) stationary
e) portable

Answer: C

The __________ type tubes have fins on their outer surfaces.

a) looped
b) extended
c) firetube
d) flared
e) tangential

Answer: B

Extended type tubes used with oil heaters are tubes

a) which have been expanded
b) which have extensions attached
c) with fins on their outer surfaces
d) of varying lengths
e) that reach beyond the top drum

Answer: C

In hot oil heaters, hot gases moving through the furnace transfers the heat to

a) a conduction heater
b) a convection heater
c) a radiant heater
d) a space heater
e) a superheater

Answer: B

The most popular acid for boiler cleaning is

a) sulphuric
b) hydrochloric
c) phosphoric
d) nitric
e) chelate

Answer: B

An inhibitor, when added to acid, will

a) minimize the effect the acid has on the metal
b) make the acid compatible with the sewer system for disposal
c) strengthen the acid thereby shortening the cleaning procedure
d) prevent the acid from attacking the boiler metal
e) cause foaming in the boiler

Answer: A

A relatively new and safer chemical used in boiler cleaning and treatment is

a) chelates
b) trisodium phosphate
c) sodium hydroxide
d) caustic soda
e) hydrazine

Answer: A

For an alkaline boil out, the boiler is maintained at a desired steam pressure for about

a) 12 hours
b) 8 hours
c) 16 hours
d) 48 hours
e) 24 hours

Answer: D

Chemical cleaning of smaller boilers is not usually done because

a) of the small surface area which the chemical contacts
b) of the thin metal of which they are manufactured
c) they do not have adequate support for the high density of the chemicals
d) it is impossible to get the chemical circulating adequately
e) the cost to do so is not warranted or justified

Answer: E

A hydrostatic test on a high pressure steam boiler

a) must be done on a new boiler
b) must only be done by the inspector
c) will test the high pressure steam fuel cut-off
d) should be done with the Chief Engineer present
e) must be done before start-up of a boiler

Answer: A

A boiler inspection

a) must be done after every shut down of the boiler
b) must be done when the boiler inspector requests it
c) must be done every two years
d) is done with the owner's permission only
e) must be done before the boiler is ready for start-up

Answer: B

The external inspection of a boiler

a) may include making sure the valves are in good operating condition
b) may include making sure the furnace refractory is in order
c) may include making sure the tubes are free of scale
d) must be done after the boiler has been drained
e) may include making sure the exterior of the tubes are in good condition

Answer: A

One of the legal responsibilities of the engineer during an inspection is to

a) be in possession of an inspection certificate
b) point out any known or suspected defects to the inspector
c) have at least two staff members present at all times
d) allow the inspector onto the premises, but only during working hours
e) notify the Workers' Compensation Board of the inspection

Answer: B

Before cleaning the waterside and as far as is possible

a) a visual inspection of pressure parts should be completed
b) all drum internals should be removed
c) mud drum sludge should be completely removed
d) a scale sample should be taken and an analysis done
e) tubes should be "turbined"

Answer: A

When cooling down a steam boiler that has been taken out of service, a vent valve on the steam drum should be opened to

a) prevent a vacuum from forming in the boiler
b) release the air from the boiler
c) purge the shell of impure gases
d) let the operator know when the pressure has reached zero
e) prevent pressure build-up in the boiler

Answer: A

Just before entering the waterside of the boiler it is important to

a) notify the inspector in writing of your intent to do so
b) ensure the chief engineer is aware of your intent
c) be wearing self contained breathing apparatus (SCBA)
d) test the atmosphere with an oxygen "sniffer"
e) obtain permission to do so from plant management

Answer: D

When the boiler is removed from service, it can be drained once the temperature reaches approximately

a) 150 degrees C
b) 30 degrees C
c) 50 degrees C
d) 90 degrees C
e) 70 degrees C

Answer: D

One of the main purposes of an external inspection is to

a) observe operation and maintenance practices
b) check the plant records, log books, etc.
c) verify that scale is not present on or in the tubes
d) check the operation of each safety shutdown device
e) inspect all auxiliary equipment and pressure vessels

Answer: A

A tube beading tool

a) is used on watertube boilers
b) is used on firetube boilers
c) is used to fasten the stays in the tube sheet
d) is used to cut fire tubes
e) is used to unfasten fire tubes from the tube sheet

Answer: B

The purpose of annealing tube ends is

a) to post heat the tube ends
b) to harden the tube ends
c) to prevent the ends from burning
d) to obtain a neat appearance
e) to soften the tube ends

Answer: E

The final step in replacing a firetube is

a) a light re-expansion
b) filling the boiler with water and checking for leaks
c) applying a hydrostatic test
d) firing the boiler up to normal working pressure
e) annealing the tube ends

Answer: C

When replacing a firetube in a tubesheet, the tube should extend beyond the tubesheet

a) 5 mm
b) one tube wall thickness
c) 10 mm
d) two tube wall thickness'
e) 15 mm

Answer: D

Before a welder is allowed to weld on a boiler he must have a

a) certificate of qualification
b) certain minimum number of years experience
c) performance qualification card
d) welding test conducted
e) certificate of qualification and a performance qualification card

Answer: E

When working inside a steel heating boiler, which of the following safety precautions should you take?

1. boiler must be cooled and vented
2. valves must be closed and locked, and all lines to and from the boiler must be blanked
3. you may use ungrounded wiring
4. always have one man standing outside, whenever anyone is inside the boiler

a) 1, 2, 3
b) 2, 3
c) 2, 3, 4
d) 1, 2, 3, 4
e) 1, 2, 4

Answer: E

A water tank should be installed above the boiler and attached to the vent connection during a wet lay up in order to

a) permit the injection of chemicals
b) prevent air from entering the boiler during water contraction
c) hold the manway doors closed
d) prevent water vapour from entering the power plant
e) prevent the wastage of chemicals

Answer: B

A substance which will absorb humidity inside a boiler during dry lay up is

a) zeolite
b) sodium sulphite
c) sodium chloride
d) activated alumina
e) lime soda

Answer: D

A black light crack detection utilizes ultraviolet light and

a) iridescent powder
b) an infrared solution
c) a radium solution
d) fluorescent penetrant
e) opaque dye

Answer: D

When the fireside of a boiler is first opened up, small leak seepage spots can be detected by

a) ultraviolet light
b) white salt deposits resulting from water evaporation
c) water on the furnace floor
d) hissing sounds
e) water running down the tubes

Answer: B

When plugging off a tube in a boiler, the plug taper should be

a) 2 to 1
b) 5 to 1
c) 7.5 to 1
d) 10 to 1
e) 20 to 1

Answer: E

Manway gaskets should be coated with an anti-seize compound

a) which will act as a sealant and prevent leakage
b) so the gasket will harden and set once temperature is raised
c) thereby allowing the gasket to move during seating
d) to prevent the gasket from sticking to the mating surfaces
e) so that leaks will show up more readily

Answer: D

A boiler circulating pump gland should have some leakage

a) to prevent the packing from drying out
b) so that the shaft sleeve will take the wear
c) in order for the stuffing box to run at the desired high temperature
d) so the operator can tell when the pump becomes vapour-bound
e) in order to keep the motor amperage down

Answer: A

Machine bolts are most commonly supplied with

a) pan heads
b) oval heads
c) Truss heads
d) hexagon heads
e) square heads

Answer: D

Mechanical steel fasteners that are commonly used in the automotive industry and on various plant machinery are classed as

a) carriage bolts
b) machine bolts
c) hexagon bolts
d) whitworth bolts
e) self tapping

Answer: B

Castle nuts are used

a) to lock the bolt in place
b) to hold shims in place
c) with a square pin
d) for locking square nuts in place
e) with a split pin

Answer: E

To prevent damage to a work surface while fastening

a) do not over-tighten a nut
b) use castle nuts only
c) use toothed lock washers
d) use flat washers
e) use a lubricant during threading and tightening

Answer: D

An M24 course thread bolt has

a) 3 threads per mm
b) 3.5 threads per mm
c) 3 mm per thread
d) 3.5 mm per thread
e) 2 mm per thread

Answer: C

Stove bolt nuts are usually

a) hexagonal
b) square
c) fine thread
d) self locking
e) left hand thread

Answer: B

The clove hitch is used for attaching a rope to pull

a) at right angles
b) vertically
c) horizontally
d) straight
e) upwards

Answer: A

What factor of safety should be used, to determine safe load for a new fibre rope?

a) 10
b) 5
c) 7
d) 4
e) 3

Answer: B

Natural ropes are made of

a) nylon
b) polyethylene
c) manila
d) dacron
e) polyvinyl chloride

Answer: C

Eye bolts should be

a) threaded with fine threads only
b) shackled when more than two are used
c) angled so the load is applied non-axially
d) hot forged
e) self tapping

Answer: D

When joining two ropes of different diameters we use a

a) reef knot
b) sheet bend
c) figure eight knot
d) sheep shank
e) round turn and three half hitches

Answer: B

A knot used to pull at right angles to a pipe or pole is the

a) timber hitch
b) round turn and two half hitches
c) bowline
d) reef knot
e) clove hitch

Answer: E

In order to keep rope from untwisting under load

a) it should be moistened
b) it requires a synthetic binder
c) it is made with left- and right-handed counteracting twists
d) each end requires "whipping"
e) rope thimbles should be used

Answer: C

A strand of fibre rope is

a) at least 20 metres in length
b) composed of fibres twisted right-handed
c) the smallest component of the rope
d) composed of yarns twisted left-handed
e) the most important part of the rope

Answer: D

An eye made by using a Crosby clip will have a strength factor of

a) 80%
b) 50%
c) 95%
d) 75%
e) 90%

Answer: A

Wire rope classified as 8 x 12 means it has

a) a factor of safety of 8 and is 12 metres long
b) a factor of safety of 12 and is 8 metres long
c) 8 strands with 12 wires per strand
d) 12 strands with 8 wires per strand
e) none of the above

Answer: C

The approximate mass of a 15 cm "I" beam is

a) 20 kg per running metre
b) 60 kg per running metre
c) 30 kg per running metre
d) 26 kg per running metre
e) 37 kg per running metre

Answer: D

Safe practice in rigging, when calculating weight of objects, should be accurate within plus or minus __________ for light objects.

a) 5%
b) 15%
c) 20%
d) 25%
e) 33%

Answer: C

To determine the mass of an object you may

a) calculate its area
b) calculate its length
c) use specification sheets
d) determine the volume of the material
e) check its relative density

Answer: C

The most common method of getting a reasonable idea of an object's __________ is by estimating it.

a) size
b) shape
c) density
d) mass
e) specific gravity

Answer: D

Whenever two or more sling eyes are used in lifting an object they should be

a) of equal strength
b) spaced evenly regardless of the object's centre of gravity
c) held in a shackle
d) used only with a come-along
e) fastened with a Crosby clip

Answer: C